Attempt this full-length RRB Group D mock test with 100 exam-level questions covering mathematics, reasoning, science and general awareness.
Table of Contents
RRB Group D Mock Test: 100 Questions for Level 1 CBT Preparation
Introduction
The RRB Group D Level 1 Computer-Based Test is designed to evaluate a candidate’s numerical ability, reasoning skills, understanding of general science and awareness of important national and general topics. A full-length mock test is one of the most useful resources for preparing for this examination because it recreates the structure, question distribution and time pressure of the actual CBT.
The official Level 1 examination structure uses 100 objective questions covering Mathematics, General Intelligence and Reasoning, General Science, and General Awareness and Current Affairs. The standard duration is 90 minutes, subject to the applicable provisions for eligible candidates. s RRB Group D mock test contains 100 carefully balanced questions. The questions are arranged to test calculation speed, conceptual understanding, logical analysis and factual accuracy rather than simple memorisation.
Importance of the Subjects in RRB Group D
Mathematics
Mathematics evaluates a candidate’s ability to work accurately with numbers under limited time. Questions commonly cover percentages, ratios, averages, profit and loss, interest, time and work, speed and distance, algebra, geometry, mensuration and elementary probability.
The difficulty of individual questions may not always be very high, but lengthy calculations and close answer options make speed and accuracy important. Candidates must know when to use direct calculation, approximation, ratios or unitary methods.
General Intelligence and Reasoning
Reasoning usually carries a significant share of the paper. It examines how quickly candidates identify patterns, relationships, sequences and logical conclusions.
This section may include number series, alphabet series, analogies, coding-decoding, blood relations, directions, ranking, syllogisms, Venn diagrams, calendars, clocks, seating arrangements and spatial reasoning. Regular practice is essential because each question type requires a different solving approach.
General Science
General Science questions are generally based on foundational concepts from Physics, Chemistry and Biology. Candidates should understand practical applications of scientific principles instead of memorising isolated definitions.
Important areas include motion, force, work, electricity, light, acids and bases, metals, chemical reactions, cells, human physiology, plant tissues, heredity and ecology.
General Awareness
General Awareness tests knowledge of Indian polity, history, geography, economics, culture, institutions and basic computer awareness. Questions are often direct, but similar terms and closely related constitutional provisions can create confusion.
Candidates should revise standard facts while also understanding their context. For example, it is more useful to understand the role of the Finance Commission than merely memorising its name.
Types of Questions Asked in the Examination
RRB Group D questions can generally be classified into four types.
The first type contains direct factual questions, such as identifying a constitutional article, scientific unit or historical event. These questions require accurate revision.
The second type contains formula-based numerical questions. They test whether candidates can select and apply the correct formula without unnecessary calculation.
The third type contains multi-step application questions. Problems based on income and expenditure, mixtures, trains, compound interest or combined work fall into this category.
The fourth type contains analytical reasoning questions. These questions require candidates to process the information in the correct sequence before selecting an answer.
A realistic preparation plan must include all four types. Practising only direct questions may improve confidence but will not adequately prepare a candidate for calculation-intensive or analytical problems.
Practical Preparation Strategy
Begin by dividing the syllabus into small topics. Complete one topic at a time and solve a set of questions immediately after revising its concepts. This helps identify whether the topic has genuinely been understood.
For Mathematics, maintain a formula sheet covering percentages, interest, work efficiency, speed conversion, areas and volumes. Revise multiplication tables, squares, cubes and common fraction-percentage conversions.
For Reasoning, classify mistakes according to question type. A direction-sense error requires a different correction method from a syllogism or series error. Draw diagrams wherever relationships or positions are involved.
For General Science, focus on cause-and-effect relationships. Understand why convex mirrors are used in vehicles, why sodium is stored under kerosene and how insulin affects blood glucose.
For General Awareness, use short revision notes. Organise information into categories such as constitutional bodies, national movements, physical geography, basic economics and cultural traditions.
Attempt full-length tests under a 90-minute limit. A practical first target is to complete direct Science and General Awareness questions quickly, reserve sufficient time for calculation and reasoning, and keep the final few minutes for reviewing marked questions.
Common Mistakes Made by Candidates
One common mistake is spending too much time on a single numerical question. A difficult question should be marked for review so that easier marks are not lost.
Candidates also confuse percentage increase with percentage-point change, upstream speed with downstream speed, and simple interest with compound interest.
In Reasoning, assumptions are frequently added to the information given. A conclusion must follow from the statements, not from general knowledge.
In Science, candidates often memorise terms without understanding their functions. For example, xylem and phloem are confused because both are transport tissues, but they carry different materials.
Another serious mistake is ignoring units. Metres per second must be converted into kilometres per hour when the options use a different unit.
Blind guessing can also reduce the final score where negative marking applies. Candidates should answer uncertain questions only after eliminating options logically.
Benefits of Regular MCQ Practice
MCQ practice improves recall speed, calculation efficiency and option-elimination skills. It also reveals weak topics that may remain hidden during passive reading.
Full-length tests help candidates develop an effective question-attempt sequence. They teach when to calculate fully, when to use an option-based shortcut and when to leave a question temporarily.
After every test, candidates should classify incorrect answers into three groups: conceptual errors, calculation errors and careless errors. Conceptual errors require revision, calculation errors require repeated practice, and careless errors require better reading discipline.
20 Sample Questions with Detailed Explanations
1. Income and Expenditure
Question: The monthly incomes of A and B are in the ratio 5:7, while their expenditures are in the ratio 3:4. If each saves Rs. 6,000 per month and A earns Rs. 25,000, what is B’s monthly expenditure?
Correct answer: Rs. 29,000
Explanation:
A’s income is Rs. 25,000, so five ratio units equal 25,000. One income unit equals Rs. 5,000. Therefore, B’s income is 7 × 5,000 = Rs. 35,000. As B saves Rs. 6,000, his expenditure is 35,000 − 6,000 = Rs. 29,000.
2. Compound Interest
Question: What is the compound interest on Rs. 10,000 at 10% per annum for 2 years, compounded annually?
Correct answer: Rs. 2,100
Explanation:
The amount after two years is:
10,000 × 1.10 × 1.10 = Rs. 12,100.
Compound interest is the amount minus the principal:
12,100 − 10,000 = Rs. 2,100.
The second year’s interest is calculated on the increased amount, not only on the original principal.
3. Time and Work
Question: A can complete a work in 12 days and B can complete it in 18 days. In how many days can they complete the work together?
Correct answer: 7.2 days
Explanation:
A’s one-day work is 1/12 and B’s one-day work is 1/18.
Combined work:
1/12 + 1/18 = 3/36 + 2/36 = 5/36.
Therefore, the required time is 36/5 = 7.2 days.
4. Train Speed
Question: A 180-metre-long train crosses a pole in 12 seconds. What is its speed?
Correct answer: 54 km/h
Explanation:
While crossing a pole, the train covers its own length.
Speed = 180 ÷ 12 = 15 metres per second.
To convert metres per second into kilometres per hour, multiply by 18/5:
15 × 18/5 = 54 km/h.
5. Mixture
Question: A vessel contains 40 litres of a milk-water mixture in the ratio 7:3. How much water must be added to make the ratio 7:5?
Correct answer: 8 litres
Explanation:
Milk in the original mixture is 7/10 × 40 = 28 litres. Water is 12 litres.
To make the ratio 7:5 while keeping milk unchanged, 28 litres of milk must correspond to 20 litres of water. Therefore, additional water required is 20 − 12 = 8 litres.
6. Quadratic Equation
Question: What are the roots of the equation x² − 7x + 12 = 0?
Correct answer: 3 and 4
Explanation:
We need two numbers whose product is 12 and whose sum is 7. These numbers are 3 and 4.
Therefore:
x² − 7x + 12 = (x − 3)(x − 4).
Setting each factor equal to zero gives x = 3 and x = 4.
7. Probability
Question: Two fair dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers obtained is 8?
Correct answer: 5/36
Explanation:
Two dice have 36 equally likely outcomes. The outcomes giving a sum of 8 are:
(2,6), (3,5), (4,4), (5,3) and (6,2).
There are five favourable outcomes. Therefore, the probability is 5/36.
8. Alphabet Series
Question: Find the missing term in the series: AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?
Correct answer: EV
Explanation:
The first letters move forward alphabetically: A, B, C, D, E.
The second letters move backward: Z, Y, X, W, V.
Therefore, the next pair is EV.
9. Coding-Decoding
Question: In a certain code, MANGO is written as NBOHP. How will GRAPE be written?
Correct answer: HSBQF
Explanation:
Each letter is replaced by the next letter of the English alphabet:
G becomes H, R becomes S, A becomes B, P becomes Q and E becomes F.
Therefore, GRAPE becomes HSBQF.
10. Direction Sense
Question: Ravi walks 8 km north, turns right and walks 6 km, then turns right and walks 8 km. How far and in which direction is he from the starting point?
Correct answer: 6 km east
Explanation:
The first and third movements are 8 km north and 8 km south, so they cancel each other. Ravi’s only remaining displacement is 6 km towards the east.
11. Syllogism
Question: Some pens are pencils. All pencils are wooden. Which conclusions follow: I. Some pens are wooden. II. Some wooden objects are pencils?
Correct answer: Both conclusions follow
Explanation:
Some pens belong to the group of pencils. Since every pencil is wooden, those pens that are pencils must also be wooden. Therefore, Conclusion I follows. Because pencils exist and all pencils are wooden, some wooden objects are pencils. Conclusion II also follows.
12. Set Theory
Question: In a group of 70 people, 40 like tea, 35 like coffee and 15 like both. How many like neither?
Correct answer: 10
Explanation:
People who like at least one beverage are:
40 + 35 − 15 = 60.
The 15 who like both are subtracted once to avoid double counting. Therefore, the number who like neither is 70 − 60 = 10.
13. Unit of Force
Question: Which physical quantity is measured in newtons?
Correct answer: Force
Explanation:
The newton is the SI unit of force. One newton is the force required to accelerate a mass of one kilogram at one metre per second squared. Pressure is measured in pascals, energy in joules and power in watts.
14. Refraction
Question: The refractive index of a medium is 1.5. If the speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 10⁸ m/s, what is its speed in the medium?
Correct answer: 2 × 10⁸ m/s
Explanation:
Refractive index is calculated as the speed of light in vacuum divided by its speed in the medium.
Therefore:
Speed in medium = 3 × 10⁸ ÷ 1.5 = 2 × 10⁸ m/s.
15. Separation Technique
Question: Which method is most suitable for separating two miscible liquids having significantly different boiling points?
Correct answer: Simple distillation
Explanation:
Simple distillation separates miscible liquids by using their difference in boiling points. The liquid with the lower boiling point vaporises first, is cooled in a condenser and is then collected separately.
16. Human Heart
Question: Which chamber of the human heart pumps oxygenated blood to the entire body?
Correct answer: Left ventricle
Explanation:
Oxygenated blood enters the left atrium from the lungs and then moves into the left ventricle. The left ventricle contracts strongly and pumps the blood through the aorta to the rest of the body.
17. Genetics
Question: In a cross between a pure tall pea plant and a pure dwarf pea plant, all first-generation offspring are tall. What does this demonstrate?
Correct answer: Dominance of the tall trait
Explanation:
The offspring receive one tall allele and one dwarf allele. Because the tall allele is dominant, it determines the visible characteristic in the first generation. The dwarf allele remains present but is not expressed.
18. Constitutional Right
Question: Which Fundamental Right was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the “heart and soul” of the Constitution?
Correct answer: Right to Constitutional Remedies
Explanation:
The Right to Constitutional Remedies allows individuals to approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. It is contained in Article 32 and makes constitutional rights legally enforceable.
19. Indian National Movement
Question: The resolution demanding Purna Swaraj was adopted by the Indian National Congress at which session?
Correct answer: Lahore Session of 1929
Explanation:
At the Lahore Session held in December 1929, the Congress adopted complete independence as its objective. Jawaharlal Nehru presided over the session, and 26 January 1930 was observed as Independence Day.
20. Cost-Push Inflation
Question: Inflation caused mainly by an increase in production costs is known as what?
Correct answer: Cost-push inflation
Explanation:
Cost-push inflation occurs when the cost of inputs such as fuel, wages, transport or raw materials increases. Producers may pass these higher costs to consumers through increased prices. It differs from demand-pull inflation, which results from demand exceeding available supply.
Practice the Full RRB Group D Test
Attempt all 100 questions in one sitting and use a 90-minute timer. Avoid checking answers during the test. After completing the paper, analyse every incorrect and unattempted question. Record the topic, reason for the error and correct solving method.
Repeat the test after revising weak areas. The objective is not merely to remember answers but to improve calculation speed, conceptual clarity, question selection and accuracy under examination conditions.