Practice this IBPS RRB PO mock test with 100 exam-level questions covering reasoning, aptitude, English, banking awareness and computer knowledge.
Table of Contents
IBPS RRB PO Mock Test 2026: 100 Exam-Level Questions
Introduction
The IBPS RRB PO examination recruits Officer Scale I candidates for Regional Rural Banks. It evaluates whether an aspirant can calculate accurately, interpret information, reason under time pressure, understand professional English, apply banking concepts and handle basic computer-related questions. The official IBPS recruitment process for Officer Scale I includes an online preliminary examination, an online main examination and a common interview for shortlisted candidates.
This 100-question mock test uses a balanced, mains-oriented mix of Reasoning Ability, Quantitative Aptitude, English Language, Banking and General Awareness, and Computer Knowledge. It is a compact practice paper rather than a random question bank. Questions move from moderate concepts to multi-step applications so that candidates can test speed, accuracy, selection strategy and conceptual control in one sitting.
Importance of These Subjects in the IBPS RRB PO Exam
Reasoning Ability measures how quickly a candidate can identify relationships, test conclusions and organise incomplete information. Officer-level work requires logical handling of customer requests, records, operational conditions and risk-related decisions. Therefore, syllogisms, inequalities, seating arrangements, data sufficiency, assumptions and analytical reasoning deserve regular timed practice.
Quantitative Aptitude tests numerical accuracy and commercial understanding. Percentages, ratios, averages, profit and loss, interest, time and work, probability and data interpretation frequently appear in banking examinations because they reflect practical numerical situations. Candidates should not merely memorise formulas; they must recognise which formula applies and avoid unnecessary calculation.
English Language evaluates grammar, vocabulary, comprehension and the ability to understand formal communication. In a banking environment, officers read instructions, circulars, reports, applications and customer correspondence. Questions on error detection, sentence improvement, connectors, inference and para-jumbles test these abilities directly.
Banking Awareness connects exam preparation with the actual role. A serious candidate should understand RRB ownership, NABARD, RBI tools, deposits, NPAs, payment systems, financial inclusion and basic regulatory terminology. Computer Knowledge is equally important because most banking operations are technology-driven. Databases, networks, cybersecurity, operating systems, spreadsheets and digital authentication are practical areas, not isolated theory.
Types of Questions Asked in Real Banking Exams
The reasoning section usually combines independent questions with arrangement-based problems. Independent questions may cover coding-decoding, blood relations, direction sense, ranking, inequality and logical conclusions. Higher-level questions require candidates to connect several conditions and eliminate impossible cases.
Quantitative questions may be direct, but the main challenge is choosing an efficient method. A percentage question can often be solved through fractions, while ratio questions may be simplified by assigning common variables. Data interpretation questions test both reading accuracy and arithmetic discipline.
English questions are not limited to grammar rules. Candidates may need to identify contextual vocabulary, infer the writer’s intention, arrange sentences logically or select a grammatically parallel construction. Banking and computer questions are generally knowledge-based, but options are often designed with closely related terms. Precise definitions matter.
Practical Preparation Strategy
Set Section-Wise Accuracy Targets
Do not use only an overall score. Record attempts, correct answers, wrong answers and time spent for every section. A candidate scoring well in reasoning but losing marks in English needs a different plan from someone who is accurate everywhere but too slow. Aim first for consistent accuracy, then increase attempts.
Use a Two-Round Attempt Method
In the first round, solve questions that are familiar and can be completed without lengthy calculation. Skip any question that does not become clear within a reasonable time. In the second round, return to moderate questions and selected puzzles. This prevents one difficult set from consuming time meant for several easier questions.
Maintain Clean Rough Work
For arrangements, draw fixed positions before testing possibilities. For arithmetic, write ratios, units and intermediate values clearly. In data sufficiency, do not solve more than required; check whether the information is sufficient. Clean rough work reduces avoidable errors and makes review faster.
Build an Error Log
After every mock, classify each mistake as conceptual, calculation-based, reading-related, memory-based or caused by poor question selection. Write the correct method in one or two lines. Revising this log is more useful than repeatedly solving new papers without analysing errors.
Revise Banking and Computer Concepts in Small Blocks
Create short revision sheets for monetary-policy tools, payment systems, deposit insurance, asset classification, RRB structure, database keys, network protocols, cybersecurity and spreadsheet references. Revise them frequently instead of attempting to memorise a large booklet at once. The RRB Act provides the statutory foundation, while official sources confirm the traditional capital contribution ratio of 50:15:35 among the Central Government, State Government and sponsor bank.
Simulate Exam Conditions
Attempt the full mock without pausing, checking answers or using a calculator. Sit in a quiet place and follow a fixed time limit. After completion, calculate accuracy and identify sections where decision-making failed. A mock test becomes valuable only when its analysis changes the next attempt.
Common Mistakes Students Make
A common mistake is attempting every question in sequence. Banking exams reward controlled selection, not emotional attachment to a difficult puzzle. Another error is reading only the numbers while ignoring words such as approximately, at least, only, immediately or except.
In English, candidates often choose an option that sounds natural but violates agreement, tense or parallelism. In banking awareness, similar institutions and payment systems are confused because definitions are not revised. In computer knowledge, students memorise abbreviations without understanding their function.
Candidates also focus only on total marks. A high attempt count with weak accuracy can reduce the effective score where negative marking applies. Careless guessing, incomplete rough work and failure to review mock-test mistakes repeatedly produce the same losses.
Benefits of Regular MCQ Practice
Quality MCQ practice improves retrieval speed, option elimination and recognition of recurring structures. It teaches candidates when to calculate exactly, when to estimate and when to skip. Repeated timed practice also exposes weak areas that may remain hidden during passive study.
A balanced mock develops mental switching between numerical, verbal and knowledge-based sections. This is important because candidates must move from a puzzle to a grammar question or banking fact without losing concentration. Over time, analysis of mock scores produces a realistic preparation plan based on evidence rather than confidence alone.
20 Sample Questions with Detailed Explanations
1. Statements: All auditors are graduates. Some graduates are poets. No poet is a banker. Which conclusion follows?
Correct Answer: Only conclusion I follows.
Explanation: Some graduates are definitely poets, and no poet can be a banker. Therefore, those particular graduates are not bankers, so conclusion I follows. The statements do not establish any direct relationship between auditors and poets. Auditors are graduates, but they may or may not belong to the group of graduates who are poets.
2. A person walks 8 km north, 6 km east, 8 km south and then 3 km east. Where is the person from the starting point?
Correct Answer: 9 km east.
Explanation: The 8 km northward movement is cancelled by the later 8 km southward movement. The person moves 6 km east and then another 3 km east because a left turn while facing south points east. The final horizontal displacement is therefore 6 + 3 = 9 km east.
3. What is the value of x? Statement I: 3x + 2y = 18. Statement II: x – y = 1.
Correct Answer: Both statements together are sufficient.
Explanation: Neither equation alone can determine one unique value of x because each contains two variables. Using Statement II, y = x – 1. Substituting into Statement I gives 3x + 2(x – 1) = 18, so 5x = 20 and x = 4. Both statements are required.
4. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F sit around a circular table. Who sits immediately clockwise of E?
Correct Answer: F.
Explanation: Fix A at any position because rotation does not change the arrangement. D sits opposite A. B is immediately clockwise of A, and C is immediately clockwise of B. E is immediately clockwise of D. Only one position remains, and that position is immediately clockwise of E; therefore, F occupies it.
5. Which evidence most strongly supports the claim that appointment-based branch service will reduce waiting time?
Correct Answer: Pilot branches using appointments reduced average waiting time by 30% without lowering service completion.
Explanation: Strong evidence must directly connect the proposed action with the claimed outcome. The pilot result measures waiting time after appointments were introduced and also confirms that service completion did not suffer. The other options discuss preferences or facilities but do not test whether appointments actually reduce queues.
6. What is 48% of 750 plus 35% of 400?
Correct Answer: 500.
Explanation: Calculate each part separately. Forty-eight per cent of 750 is 0.48 × 750 = 360. Thirty-five per cent of 400 is 0.35 × 400 = 140. Adding them gives 360 + 140 = 500.
7. The incomes of A and B are in the ratio 5:4, expenditures are in the ratio 3:2, and savings are equal. What percentage of A’s income is saved?
Correct Answer: 40%.
Explanation: Let the incomes be 5x and 4x, and expenditures be 3y and 2y. Equal savings gives 5x – 3y = 4x – 2y, so x = y. A therefore earns 5x and spends 3x, saving 2x. The saving percentage is 2x/5x × 100 = 40%.
8. A completes a job in 12 days and B in 18 days. How long will they take together?
Correct Answer: 7.2 days.
Explanation: A’s one-day work is 1/12 and B’s is 1/18. Their combined rate is 1/12 + 1/18 = 3/36 + 2/36 = 5/36 of the job per day. Required time is 36/5 days, which equals 7.2 days.
9. Two fair dice are thrown. What is the probability that the sum is 9?
Correct Answer: 1/9.
Explanation: There are 36 equally likely ordered outcomes when two dice are thrown. A sum of 9 occurs with (3,6), (4,5), (5,4) and (6,3), giving four favourable outcomes. The probability is 4/36 = 1/9.
10. The 7th term of an arithmetic progression is 31 and the 13th term is 55. What is the 20th term?
Correct Answer: 83.
Explanation: The difference between the 13th and 7th terms covers six common differences. Thus, 6d = 55 – 31 = 24, so d = 4. The first term is 31 – 6 × 4 = 7. Therefore, the 20th term is 7 + 19 × 4 = 83.
11. Identify the error: Each of the officers / have submitted / their report / before the deadline.
Correct Answer: have submitted.
Explanation: The subject is “Each,” which is singular even though it is followed by the plural noun “officers.” The verb must therefore be singular: “has submitted.” The corrected sentence is: “Each of the officers has submitted their report before the deadline.”
12. Arrange the sentences about redesigning bank application forms.
Correct Answer: B-A-C-D.
Explanation: Sentence B introduces the problem discovered by the survey. Sentence A presents the bank’s response to that problem. Sentence C explains what was changed in the redesigned forms. Sentence D gives the final result. This creates a logical problem-action-detail-outcome sequence.
13. Choose the correct conditional sentence about disclosure of a liability.
Correct Answer: Had the borrower disclosed the liability, the bank would have assessed the risk differently.
Explanation: This is an inverted third conditional describing an unreal past situation. “Had the borrower disclosed” replaces “If the borrower had disclosed,” and the result clause correctly uses “would have assessed.” Both clauses refer to a past event that did not happen.
14. Digital transactions increased sharply, but cash withdrawals remained stable. What is the most reasonable inference?
Correct Answer: Digital and cash channels continue to coexist.
Explanation: The statement shows growth in digital transactions without a corresponding decline in cash withdrawals. It does not prove that branches are unused or that cash will immediately disappear. The safest inference is that customers are using digital channels while continuing to use cash.
15. The Regional Rural Banks Act was enacted in which year?
Correct Answer: 1976.
Explanation: Regional Rural Banks were given their statutory framework through the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976. The year 1975 is often confused with the Act because the first RRBs began functioning in 1975, but the legislation itself is the 1976 Act.
16. What is the traditional ownership ratio in a Regional Rural Bank?
Correct Answer: 50:15:35.
Explanation: The Central Government, concerned State Government and sponsor bank traditionally subscribe to RRB capital in the ratio 50%, 15% and 35%, respectively. This structure reflects joint ownership by the Union, the state and the sponsoring commercial bank.
17. A term loan generally becomes an NPA when interest or instalment remains overdue for more than how many days?
Correct Answer: 90 days.
Explanation: Under the standard income-recognition and asset-classification norm, a non-agricultural term loan is treated as non-performing when interest or principal instalment remains overdue for more than 90 days. Agricultural advances may follow crop-season-based rules, so the question specifically refers to a general term loan.
18. What is the maximum deposit insurance cover under DICGC?
Correct Answer: Rs. 5 lakh per depositor per bank.
Explanation: DICGC covers the principal and accrued interest together up to a maximum of Rs. 5 lakh for a depositor in the same right and capacity at one bank. Deposits across different branches of the same bank are aggregated for this limit.
19. Which organisation operates UPI in India?
Correct Answer: NPCI.
Explanation: The Unified Payments Interface was developed and is operated within the payment infrastructure of the National Payments Corporation of India. UPI enables instant inter-bank mobile transactions, while RBI regulates the broader payment-system environment.
20. Third Normal Form primarily removes what type of dependency?
Correct Answer: Transitive dependencies on non-key attributes.
Explanation: A table is in Third Normal Form when it is already in Second Normal Form and non-key attributes do not depend transitively on a candidate key. In practical terms, a non-key field should not depend on another non-key field; separating such data reduces redundancy and update anomalies.
Practice the Complete Test
Attempt all 100 questions before viewing the answers. Mark uncertain questions, review incorrect responses and note the method that would have produced the answer faster. Repeat the mock after revising weak topics and compare accuracy, attempts and completion time. Use the result to plan the next section-wise practice session.